Alphabetical Phrasal Verbs Reference List

Alphabetical Phrasal Verbs Reference List Phrasal verbs are verbs that are made up of a main verb and followed by particle, usually prepositions. Most phrasal verbs are two or three words and can be quite challenging for English learners as they can be literal or figurative in meaning. In other words, sometimes it is easy to understand the meaning (such as get up), but in the case of figurative meanings can be quite confusing (such as pick up). Begin learning phrasal verbs with a limited list. The list below provides a good starting point for intermediate level English learners. Teachers can use this introducing phrasal verbs lesson plan to help students become more familiar with phrasal verbs and start building phrasal verb vocabulary. Finally, there are a wide variety of phrasal verb resources on the site to help you learn new phrasal verbs and test your understanding with quizzes. This ESL phrasal verb reference guide is intended for English learners. The guide contains some of the most important phrasal verbs used in everyday English. There are many, many more phrasal verbs, but I have chosen these verbs as a good starting point for English learners. Each phrasal verb is defined, has an example sentence for context, and states whether the definition is separable or inseparable, transitive or intransitive. For more information on how to use phrasal verbs, read the phrasal verb guide on this site. Important phrasal verbs in English starting with the letter A. Includes examples and whether the phrasal verb is separable / inseparable, transitive / intransitive. S Separable IS Inseparable T Transitive IT - Intransitive account for explain, be the reason for His lack of interest accounts for his poor grades. IS T act on take an action Tom acted on the information. IS T add to increase the size This chair will add to the furniture we already have. S T add up make sense Your guess adds up based on all the facts. IS IT agree with have the same opinion as someone I agree with Tom about the need for better schools. IS T allow something for provide time, money, or other resource for something You need to allow two hours for traffic. S T answer for something be responsible for something The director answers for the drop in sales last quarter. IS T argue something out discuss all the details to come to an agreement We argued our differences out and signed a contract. S T arrive at something agree upon something We arrived at a contract last week. IS T ask after somebody ask how someone is doing I asked after Kate last week and her mother told me she was doing well. IS T attend to something take care of something you need to do Peter attended to preparations for the party while his wife cooked the dinner. IS T average something out arrive at the average figure I average the contracts out and well make a profit of $250,000. S T

Acetaminophen Lab essays

Acetaminophen Lab essays The purpose of this lab was to use our techniques that we have learned so far in lab in order to synthesize acetaminophen from p-aminophenol and acetic anhydride. This lab was also intended to teach us how to isolate and recrystallize our compound in order to get rid of as much impurities as possible and check the purity using the melting points. Lastly, this lab helped us continue to use thin-layer chromatography in order to compare our compound to similar compounds that can be found on the shelf in order to find the active ingredients in the different analgesics. In order to start the synthesis of acetaminophen I did an acid-base reaction by adding concentrated hydrochloric acid to p-aminophenol. The p-aminophenol was then mixed with some charcoal, turning the mixture black, and then filtrated out by gravity. After this I used a buffer solution of sodium acetate to mix with the p-aminophenol and then immediately added 2 mL of acetic anhydride in order to complete the ingredients required for the synthesis. The reaction was then cooled and the crude crystallized acetaminophen was collected by vacuum filtration. I was able to retrieve 1.88g of the crude acetaminophen, which turned out to be a 64.4% yield based on the fact that p-aminophenol was the limiting reactant for this synthesis. The melting point found for the crude was 160-162 degrees Celsius, which is about 20 degrees below the melting point of pure acetaminophen, meaning that the crude product has some impurities. Part B. Recrystallization of Acetaminophen I placed .504g of the crude acetaminophen into a test tube and added boiling water, our solvent, drop-wise until the crude acetaminophen was completely dissolved. This solution was then cooled slowly in order for crystals to form and was then collected by vacuum filtration. The amount recovered from the recrystallization turned out to be .399g, which meant that I recovered 79. ...

Libya's progress towards democracy Research Paper

Libya's progress towards democracy - Research Paper Example Idris was a traditional emperor leader who had no concern for any self-governing principles and during his reign, Libya was mostly an impoverished nation with a life financial system; the country only relied on revenues from both the US and British airbases and international aid until 1959 when oil reserves were discovered (â€Å"History of Libya†). Idris was deposed in a bloodless coup that was led by the then 27 year old Muammar al-Gadhafi while away on a visit to Turkey; Gadhafi then immediately became commander-in-chief of the Libyan armed forces and Chairman of the Revolutionary Command Council which was the new force governing Libya. Since 1979, Libya was predominantly a military dictatorship with Gadhafi earning a global distinction as one of the world’s most eccentric and unpredictable dictators (History World). Gadhafi’s political philosophy was multifaceted, deriving from Islam, socialism, and Arab nationalism as combined in his personal manifesto, the Green Book. Although the country was renamed as the People’s Socialist Libyan Arab Jamahiriya to mean that it was governance through the masses, it remained a personal rule by a single individual, Muammar al-Gadhafi. This paper will investigate whether Libya has made any recent progress towards democracy, especially after Gadhafi’s regime was brought to an end and whether the country has any history of democratic or liberal institutions. Since Muammar Qaddafi was ousted from power, Libya had been characterized by rough-and-tumble politics; this was attributed to the country’s inexperience given that it had been under a dictatorship regime for over four decades. Critics initially argued that given the lack of a government with a full democratic charge over issues in the country, Libya had very little if any hope of transitioning into a democracy; instead, Libya could only but hope for continued drift due to the lack of a cabinet that could assume sovereign author ity over security, finance and strategic development. However, if the recent trend is anything to go by, then Libya has great potential of transforming into democratic governance after four decades of civilian subjugation under Gadhafi’s Military dictatorship. Libya’s vibrant oil industry, increasing stability, and a strong public stand against violence are strong indicators of the countries commitment towards the establishment of a democratic government and democratic institutions (Thorne). In this respect, Libya has indeed witnessed a commendable progress in the move towards democracy, regardless of the myriad skepticism and the numerous constraints inherent in the country. Nevertheless, after a whooping four decades of a one man’s rule regime in Libya, it is not expected that the country would transform to a democracy in just over a fortnight, especially given the numerous constraints to democracy such as the inexistence of democratic institutions. However, t hough slow-paced, democracy is in the offing; all indicators show that there has been a concerted effort from various stakeholders to help the country transform to a Democracy. The remarkable progress towards democracy in Libya in the recent past has been witnessed especially on the political front after Muammar Gadhafi was ousted from power (â€Å"Libya: Despite everything†). In this respect, the newly elected General National Congress, a prototype parliament that came in place

Event membership cshemes and whether thry promote customer loyalty Essay

Event membership cshemes and whether thry promote customer loyalty - Essay Example In many cases, the event is itself the product, such as cultural events and the like. The principle, however, is the same, that is, to trigger the curiosity of new customers as well as nurture a stronger relationship with the regular customers in order to court their loyalty. In trying to keep customers loyal, companies have come up with membership schemes by which a customer is â€Å"bound,† in a way, to keep coming back. By â€Å"bound† it is meant that the customer is given an incentive or reward for staying as a member and continuing to avail of the products and services of the company. In 2001, Hayes and Slater conducted a study of cultural organizations. Their aim was to arrive at a typology of the common-interest groups of people who have naturally gathered together and, after the passage of some time, became â€Å"clubs†, then â€Å"membership schemes†. (They are also known by other names like friends’ schemes, societies, and associations). The study of such typologies was considered by the authors to be useful to practitioners. It will help them in the design and evolution of membership schemes for many different purposes. This is especially for the hosting of events and exhibits, in order to make sure there is enough people in the audience. According to the authors, there are four general types of membership schemes: the friends’ scheme, the social club group, the public members’ scheme, and the integrated membership scheme. There are many factors that influence how membership schemes developed. The most important factor is the strong competition that grew between rival organizations, and a lessening of revenues available for funding. For these companies, management found out that the only way to ensure survival was by adopting an entrepreneurial style, which meant earning income in an

Health disparities Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words - 1

Health disparities - Research Paper Example ANs had a shorter life expectancy than the general population and constantly suffered from increased prevalence of disease such as rheumatic fever and tuberculosis (US Public Health Service 17). This paper will examine health disparities among AI/ANs, discussing the degree to which current health care system are meeting the health needs of this underserved population. Following advances in public health and medical care systems over the last half century, the AI/AN population has also transitioned with the rest of the population from a period of pandemics primarily of infectious diseases to one of degenerative, as well as lifestyle diseases. This progression has enhanced the recognition of health disparities encountered by the AI/AN communities from conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, drug abuse and cancer, which are essentially noninfectious. While epidemiological information regarding the AI/AN population is largely incomplete or prone to inaccuracies chiefly due to racial misclassification in official records, a vast majority of the comparisons with non-Native populations are extremely dramatic. For example, among AI/AN adults who utilized Indian Health Service (IHS) facilities in 2002, the age-adjusted incidence of diabetes was approximately 15.3%. This is significantly greater than the 7.3% incidence among all American adul ts (Kunitz 163). The rate of heart disease has traditionally been lower among Native Americans than among the white population. However, this trend is rapidly reversing since heart disease is currently the leading cause of death among the AI/AN population. In addition, deaths from violence and unintentional injuries are a substantive problem among native communities. Between 1996 and 1998, the age-adjusted death prevalence among AI/ANs across the US was nearly twice that of the population of other races in the US. The death rate for unintentional injuries, on the other hand, was at least thrice that of the rest of the US

Ethical Arguments Of Electronic Surveillance Information Technology Essay

Ethical Arguments Of Electronic Surveillance Information Technology Essay 1.1 Introduction In his dystopian masterpiece, 1984, George Orwell portrays a society in which government surveillance has become all too pervasive with nightmarish consequences. Even though Orwell never envisioned the advent of the internet and how it has become part of our daily lives, he understood the dangers of a culture of surveillance and much of what he wrote has become startlingly true. Indeed governments have moved on from traditional spying to electronic surveillance, thanks to the internet and other electronic forms of communication. Corporations too have jumped on the surveillance bandwagon, though for different purposes. This has led to ethical concerns, as illustrated in the case of the research firm Phorm. 1.2 Ethical Concerns that Could Arise Phorm is a company in the United Kingdom that developed software that allows it to monitor users online activities without their consent. This has legal ramifications as allowing such activities has caused the European Commission to investigate the UK for breaching rules pertaining to consent to interception of online transactions. However, the issue has an ethical dimension as well. Phorm has tried to justify its actions citing the benefits to customers and the companies involved. However, is it morally and ethically right for a corporation, no matter how innocent its purpose, to secretly monitor the activities of internet users without their consent? Do the advantages, both in financial and non- financial terms warrant this seeming violation of basic human rights? These are some of the ethical dilemmas posed by this case and they will be critically examined in this report. 1.3 Ethical Arguments in Support of Electronic Surveillance Corporate surveillance is a new form of surveillance by companies of people and groups. The aim is to collect data for marketing purpose which is used by the corporation itself or as in the case of Phorm, sold to third party corporations or the government (Brooks and Dunn, 2010). From the companys perspective, this is an excellent form of business intelligence as the data collected can be used to refine marketing strategies to reach the target audience. Direct marketing also employs online corporate surveillance as evidenced by Google and Yahoo (New York Times, 2007). Governments also make use of corporate surveillance data to monitor the activities of users and collect information to do profiling. The U.S. government has used this approach more often in recent years to track down terrorists, and this may be good in a sense. The ethical argument in support of this type of initiative is that it benefits various stakeholders. Electronic surveillance can improve marketing activities and this leads to more revenue which in turn benefit shareholders and the employees of the corporation that uses the services of electronic surveillance company data. Supposedly, when shareholder and employee wealth is maximized, it elevates the standard of living and thus, benefits society as a whole. True, customers are literally spied on but there is no physical damage done. Most customers are oblivious and what they do not know would not harm them. In fact, such improved marketing could even help them make better decisions when buying products and services since they will receive advertisements on things that interest them. These are some of the arguments that are used to support electronic surveillance by corporations. 1.4 Ethical Arguments Against this Type of Initiative To answer why corporate electronic surveillance is unethical and unjustifiable, we need to frame it in ethical terms. Let us look at it from the theory of consequentialism. Consequentialists are intent on maximizing the utility produced by a decision (Ermann et al, 1990). For them, the rightness of an act depends on its consequences. Consequentialism holds that an act is morally right if and only if that act maximizes the net good. In other words, an act and therefore a decision is ethical if its favourable consequences outweigh its negative consequences. Moreover, some believe that only the act that maximizes the net benefit of favourable minus the negative consequences is morally right or ethical. Philosophers also debate what consequences should be counted, how they should be counted and who deserves to be included in the set of affected stakeholders that should be considered (Brooks and Dunn, 2010). Therefore, corporate electronic surveillance is morally wrong because it does not maximize the net good. True, it may improve sales slightly if done in secret but if customers are aware that they are being spied on, they will feel violated and alienate the company altogether. Other potential customers may shy away from the company as well. In the end, such a move could seriously backfire and negatively impact shareholders. The net disadvantages dramatically outweigh the advantages. It is also illegal since such activities constitute a breach of international laws on internet privacy. Deontology is different from consequentialism in that deontologists focus on the obligations or duties motivating a decision or actions that on the consequences of the action (MacKinnon, 1998). Deontological ethics takes the position that rightness depends on the respect shown for duty, and the rights and fairness that those duties reflect. Consequently, a deontological approach raises issues relating to duties, rights and justice considerations and teaches students to use moral standards, principles and rules as a guide to making the best ethical decisions (Caroll, 1991). Deontological reasoning is largely based on the thinking of Immanuel Kant. He argued that a rational person making a decision about what would be good to do, would consider what action would be good for all members of society to do. Such an act would improve the well-being of the decision maker and the well-being of society as well. Kant began to search for an overriding principle that would guide all action an imperative that everybody should follow without exception, which could therefore be considered universal or categorical (Brooks and Dunn, 2010). His search led to what is known as Kants Categorical Imperative, which is a dominant principle or rule for deontologists. Kants principal indicates that there is a duty or imperative to always act in such a way that you can also will the maxim of your action should become a universal law (MacKinnon, 1998). This means that if you cannot will that everyone follow the same decision rule, your rule is not a moral one. As a universal principle, everyone should follow it. Moreover, the Golden Rule do unto others as you would have them do unto you would readily qualify as a universal principal (Forrester and Morrision, 1990). Using the same approach could yield a universal respect for human rights and for fair treatment of all. This can be best achieved by adopting the position that one must fulfil obligations or duties that respect moral or human rights and legal or contract rights (Flaherty, 1989). Furthermore, it can only he achieved if individuals act with enlightened self-interest rather than pure self-interest. Under enlightened self-interest, the interests of individuals are taken into account in decisions (Verschoor, 1988). They are not simply ignored or overridden. Individuals are considered ends rather than used as means to achieve an end or objective. Actions based on duty, rights and justice considerations are particularly important to professionals, directors and executives who are exp ected to fulfil the obligations of a fiduciary (Wartick and Cochran, 1985). In classical management, it has been repeatedly argued that the only fiduciary duty management owes is to the shareholders of a corporation. Thus, if activities are disadvantageous to customers, it does not matter. However, such thinking has gradually gone out of favour as corporations now realize the importance of embracing all their stakeholders (Freeman, 1984). Hence, electronic surveillance would be deemed enlightened self-interest in the old way of thinking but it is now regarded as pure self-interest. Companies that spy on customers are violating their privacy and show them no respect, which is a breach of duty of care . Electronic surveillance also goes against the Golden Rule so there is no deontological basis in support of electronic surveillance. From the above discussion, it is obvious that the arguments against electronic surveillance far outweigh those in support of it. For every argument in support, there are a few against it. Hence, corporations should stop it and use other methods that are more respectable, ethical and legal to gather marketing data. 1.5 Conclusion The ethical arguments in support of corporate electronic surveillance are scant and specious. At best, it leads to improved sales and happy shareholders but it severely undermines the basic principle of respecting the privacy of others. The right to privacy is a right to be free from certain intrusions. It is highly intrusive to have all of ones online activities monitored and used to create a database about the users likes and preferences, especially when the user is an unwilling party. From all ethical perspectives, whether utilitarian, deontological consequentialism, there is little or no basis in support of such activities. Task Two 2.1 Introduction To Phorm, its monitoring software may be a legitimate form of business. However, as a software developer, it must abide by the professional code of conduct regarding professional responsibility. The question here is whether there is a conflict of interest between its business activities and its professional responsibilities. 2.2 Conflicts with software developers professional responsibilities Software developing and engineering is a profession. As such, it has professional associations which like all other professional associations have their own code of conduct regarding professional responsibility. This is done to safeguard the reputation of the profession and to maintain the highest standards of ethics. Among the professional associations for software developers are AMC, IEEE, APEGBC and the Institute for Certification of Computing Professionals (ICCP). To be a member of these associations, one must abide by the respective code of ethics and professional responsibility. Failure to do so would result in suspension or revocation of license to practice the profession. The Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice states that software developers should be committed to making the design, analysis, development, testing and maintenance of software a respected and beneficial profession and that all engineers should adhere to eight basic principles. Principle 6 relates to professional responsibility. This clearly stipulates that software developers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession that is consistent with the public interest. Among other things, a software developer should not promote their own interest at the expense of the profession, client or employer (6.05), obey all laws governing their work, unless in exceptional circumstances, compliance is inconsistent with the public interest (6.06) and avoid associations with businesses and organizations which are in conflict with this code (6.10). Based on this principle alone, Phorm has made many breaches of professional ethics. Monitoring software such as the one developed by Phorm goes against this professional responsibility code. In fact, this action goes against the interest of customers since it monitors their online activities without their knowledge. Similarly, such an action is inconsistent with public interest as it is morally, ethically and legally wrong for companies to do surveillance on the public without their knowledge (Flaherty, 1989). Phorm should know better than to conduct business that is in conflict with a professional code of conduct. Even though its software developers may not be members of this specific professional organization, they are sure to be members of other organizations which would have similar guidelines. Phorms actions also conflict with principle one of this code which concerns the public. It states that software engineers should act consistently with the public interest. According to paragraph 1.03, software developers should approve software only if they have a well-founded belief that it is safe, meets specifications, passes appropriate tests and does not diminish the quality of life, diminish privacy or harm the environment. Phorms monitoring software diminishes individual privacy. According to Warren and Brandies (1890), privacy can be defined as a right to be left alone. It is widely regarded that privacy is a basic human right. Phorms case is a good illustration of the problems concerning internet privacy. This is because while most agree that internet privacy must be protected, there is debate on the extent it should be protected. Should privacy protection be accorded to email usage or to websites visited as well? Privacy protection is a vital part of democracy but many countries in the world, most noticeably China, are not democracies and therefore have no qualms about seriously undermining internet privacy. Nevertheless, such arguments are mainly about the rights of governments to monitor the activities of citizens for the greater good, for instance protection against terrorism. However, in terms of corporate surveillance, laws and professional codes explicitly prohibit it. 2.3 Suitability of an established code of computer ethics or an ethical decision making model There are many professional codes of ethics such as the one mentioned in the previous section that helps professionals make ethical decisions. The problem is that they are general and not company specific. Also, some employees in a corporation are not members of a professional organization and therefore do not feel obliged to follow the guidelines stipulated by these organizations. For example, software developers may be against developing monitoring software, but if the CEO compels them to do so, they have little choice but to follow orders or leave the organization. To overcome this problem, each corporation should have its own code of ethics and ethical decision making model to make the right choice. A decision making model must be designed to enhance ethical reasoning by providing insights into the identification and analysis of key issues to be considered and questions or challenges to be raised and approaches to combining and applying decision relevant factors into practical action (Brook and Dunn, 2010). A decision or action is considered ethical or right if it conforms to certain standards. One standard alone is insufficient to ensure an ethical decision. Consequently, an ethical decision making framework should be designed so that decisions or actions are compared against four standards for a comprehensive assessment of ethical behaviour. The ethical decision making model assesses the ethicality of a decision or action by examining the consequences or well-offness created in terms of net benefits or costs, rights and duties affected, fairness involved and motivation or virtues expected (Paine, 1994). The first three of these considerations consequentialism, deontology and justice are examined by focusing on the impacts of a decision on shareholders and other affected stakeholders, an approach known as stakeholder impact analysis (Caroll, 1991). The fourth consideration, the motivation of the decision maker is known as virtue ethics (Pastin, 1986). It provides insights likely to be helpful when assessing current and future governance problems as part of a normal risk management exercise. All four considerations must be examined thoroughly and appropriate ethical values must be applied in the decision and its implementation if a decision or action is to be defensible ethically. There are three steps for making an ethical decision (Velasquez, 1992). Step one is identifying the facts and all stakeholder groups and interests likely to be affected. Step two is to rank the stakeholders and their interest, identifying the most important and weighing them more than other issues in the analysis. The final step is to assess the impact of the proposed action on each stakeholder group interests with regard to their well-being, fairness of treatment and other rights, including virtue expectations, using a comprehensive framework of questions and making sure that the common pitfalls do not enter into the analysis. These pitfalls include conforming to an unethical corporate culture, misinterpreting public expectations and focusing on short term profits and shareholder only impacts (Paine, 1994). It may be helpful to organize an ethical decision analysis using the seven steps outlined by the American Accounting Association (1993) (Cited in Brooke and Dunn, 2010). One, determine the facts such as what, who, when, where and how. Two, define the ethical issues. Three, identify major principles, rules and values. Four, specify the alternatives. Five, compare values and alternatives and see if a clear decision emerges. Six, asses the consequences and finally make the decision. 2.4 Conclusion The development and implementation of involuntary electronic monitoring, such as done by Phorm conflicts with software developers professional responsibilities. This is because no professional association of software developers would ever sanction the creation of software that violates the privacy of users and goes against the best interest of society. To overcome such a situation, each IT organization must have its own corporate code of ethics. This should compliment the professional code of ethics of software developers and serve to ensure the highest ethical standards. Yet it is not enough for a company to create a good ethics policy. Implementation is the hard part and high ethical conduct must flow from top to bottom and there must be zero tolerance for breach of professional ethics. It is only by instituting such strict policies that activities like monitoring users internet usage can be curbed.

Educational Technology Essay -- Computers Schooling Essays

Educational Technology Education is probably the most important thing in life that someone can obtain. There are many levels of education. These levels begin at Kindergarten and Pre-K and continue on through grade school, junior high school, high school, and undergraduate colleges if so chosen. Then the possibility of graduate school is in the interest of some student and is required for better pay and even in some career fields. Education has undergone many changes over the past 2 decades at all levels. Many of the changes have undergone due to the increasing number of technological advancements in the ways teachers educate and the ways that students learn. The greatest technological achievement to enter the educational realm has been the creation of the PC. One of the first PC to be used in the classroom for educational purposes was introduced by Macintosh. The Apple computer, I can remember, was the first computer I used in grade school. On this PC, students were introduced to 2 dimensional computer programs designed to enhance the mind of students and introduced student to concepts that could be applied in the classroom. With the computer, a number of students could have a hands-on activity that was fun and designed to be fun while working on assignments. The floppy disk was black and was actually floppy. John Sculley wrote an article about computers and their effect on education. The article was publishe d in September of 1988 in T H E Journal (Technological Horizons In Education). The abstract read: â€Å"The effectiveness of computers in schools has been demonstrated, and business, government, and education must now work together to further the integration of technology and education. It is necessary to identify when a... ...ool. Dec. 2002 v42 i4 p4. WD & S Publishing Multimedia Schools. Helping them do it at Home. Mary Alice Anderson. March-April 2003. v10 i2 p19. Information Today, Inc. The Science Teacher. Field Trips online: Investigating water quality through the Internet. Bruce H. Munson. Jan. 2003. v70 i1 p44-49. Telephony. Going to school via Fiber. John Price. May 9, 1988 v214 n19 p28. Telephony Publishing Corp. 1988. T H E (Technological Horizons In Education) Journal. Applications: Online system speeds admissions process. Elizabeth Greengield. Nov.1990 v18 n4 p43. Information Synergy Inc. 1990. T H E (Technological Horizons In Education) Journal. CD-Rom: New Technology with promise for Education. Dennis F. Tanner. August 1988 v16 n1 p57. Information Synergy Inc. 1988 Picture Copywright: http://www.microchip.com/index.asp

Cisa

1. A benefit of open system architecture is that it: A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the integration of proprietary components. C. will be a basis for volume discounts from equipment vendors. D. allows for the achievement of more economies of scale for equipment. ANSWER: A NOTE: Open systems are those for which suppliers provide components whose interfaces are defined by public standards, thus facilitating interoperability between systems made by different vendors. In contrast, closed system components are built to proprietary standards so that other suppliers' systems cannot or will not interface with existing systems. . An IS auditor discovers that developers have operator access to the command line of a production environment operating system. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of undetected and unauthorized program changes to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line are logged B. Hash keys are calculated periodica lly for programs and matched against hash keys calculated for the most recent authorized versions of the programs C. Access to the operating system command line is granted through an access restriction tool with preapproved rights D.Software development tools and compilers have been removed from the production environment ANSWER: B NOTE: The matching of hash keys over time would allow detection of changes to files. Choice A is incorrect because having a log is not a control, reviewing the log is a control. Choice C is incorrect because the access was already granted—it does not matter how. Choice D is wrong because files can be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of effective information security governance, the primary objective of value delivery is to: A. optimize security investments in support of business objectives.B. implement a standard set of security practices. C. institute a standards-based solution. D. implement a continuous improvement culture. ANSWER: A NOTE: In the context of effective information security governance, value delivery is implemented to ensure optimization of security investments in support of business objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery include implementation of a standard set of security practices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a process, not an event. 4.During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that: A. assessment of the situation may be delayed. B. execution of the disaster recovery plan could be impacted. C. notification of the teams might not occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be ineffective. ANSWER: B NOTE: Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organizat ion does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis.Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT governance framework in an organization the MOST important objective is: A. IT alignment with the business. B. accountability. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments.ANSWER: A NOTE: The goals of IT governance are to improve IT performance, to deliver optimum business value and to ensure regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategic alignment of IT with the business (choice A). To achieve alignment, all other choices need to be tied to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find: A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link. B. traffic engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data.D. analog phone terminals. ANSWER: B NOTE: To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed using statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking.The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not ana log. 7. An IS auditor selects a server for a penetration test that will be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the following is MOST important? A. The tools used to conduct the test B. Certifications held by the IS auditor C. Permission from the data owner of the server D. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is enabled ANSWER: C NOTE: The data owner should be informed of the risks associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other relevant details.All other choices are not as important as the data owner's responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. One employee may know all parts of a system D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations ANSWER: C NOTE: When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposur es this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning.It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 9. The use of digital signatures: A. requires the use of a one-time password generator. B. provides encryption to a message. C. validates the source of a message. D. ensures message confidentiality. ANSWER: C NOTE: The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the sender, but does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time password generator is an option, but is not a requirement for using digital signatures. 0. A retail outlet has introduced radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absor bed by the human body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER: A NOTE: The purchaser of an item will not necessarily be aware of the presence of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possible to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser.Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A lower recovery time objective (RTO) results in: A. higher disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER: B NOTE: A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the acceptable downtime in case of a disruption of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies.The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition phase of a software development project, the aspects of software testing that should be addressed are developing: A. test data covering critical applications. B. detailed test plans. C. quality assurance test specifications. D. user acceptance testing specifications. ANSWER: D NOTE: A key objective in any software development project is to ensure that the developed software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user.The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a development project and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The BEST filter rule for protecting a network from being used as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all: A. outgoing traffic with IP source addresses external to the network . B. incoming traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set.D. incoming traffic to critical hosts. ANSWER: A NOTE: Outgoing traffic with an IP source address different than the IP range in the network is invalid. In most of the cases, it signals a DoS attack originated by an internal user or by a previously compromised internal machine; in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST backup strategy for a large database with data supporting online sales? A. Weekly full backup with daily incremental backup B. Daily full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard disks ANSWER: ANOTE: Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy; it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup normally requires a couple of hours, and therefore it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a redundant processing capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamicB. Private symmetric keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated ANSWER: A NOTE: WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to: A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. decentralize IT resources across the organization. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER: ANOTE: IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single point of customer contact. 17. The MAIN purpose of a transaction audit trail is to:A. reduce the use of storage media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS auditor trace transactions. D. provide useful information for capacity planning. ANSWER: B NOTE: Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility.The objective of capacity planning is the efficient an d effective use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the project manager's position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER: A NOTE: The majority of project risks can typically be i dentified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks.A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management.With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center?A. Badge readers are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The computer that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER: C NOTE: Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of limited value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important.The configuration of the system does not change frequently, therefore frequent backup is not necessary. 20. Which of the following would impair the independence of a quality assurance tea m? A. Ensuring compliance with development methods B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the code to ensure proper documentation ANSWER: C NOTE: Correction of code should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the team's independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance functions. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly reports for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system ANSWER: C NOTE: A log management tool is a product designed to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically correlate them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and suspicious activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users have entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some similar features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historical information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events.An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and loading them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart); an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the sender's: A. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. ANSWER: B NOTE: Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity; signing the hash of the message with the sender's private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receiver's public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the tape management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records.Which of the following is the MOST effective compensating control for this weakness? A. Staging and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite storage of tapes ANSWER: A NOTE: If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be accepted as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network?A. Malicious code could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER: A NOTE: VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could spread to the organization's network. Though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprise's business continuity plan should be based on predetermine d criteria that address the: A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER: A NOTE: The initiation of a business continuity plan (action) should primarily be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organizational objectives. 26. After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the investigator? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C.Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER: D NOTE: Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account enab led on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. Minimum password length and password complexity verification are examples of: A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control procedures. ANSWER: D NOTE: Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. Password controls are preventive controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of expected results from implementing controls and audit objectives are the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down approach to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. Testing can be started before all programs are complete C.It is more effective than other testing approaches D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER: A NOTE: The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment being tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that fraud may be present. The IS auditor should: A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted.B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external legal counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER: A NOTE: An IS auditor's responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additional action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authoritie s within the organization only if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are sufficient to recommend an investigation.Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through: A. performance measurement. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER: A NOTE: Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans.Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides informati on to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team.What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A Trojan is installed on the system ANSWER: A NOTE: Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove.Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user an d, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When using a universal storage bus (USB) flash drive to transport confidential corporate data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to: A. carry the flash drive in a portable safe. B. assure management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of the information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a successful attack to a system would be: A. gathering information. B. aining access. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER: A NOTE: Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the attacker gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference rooms have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion prevention system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D.Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER: B NOTE: If the conference rooms have access to the corporate network, unauthorized us ers may be able to connect to the corporate network; therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically separated. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses; however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure: A. the salvage team is trained to use the notification system. B. the notification system provides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER: CNO TE: If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no bearing on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) department has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data?A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER: A NOTE: The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket Layer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include: A. identifying critical applications. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER: C NOTE: The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C.Information owners periodically review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER: B NOTE: Personnel a nd departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel leave an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not fully removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes.When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are adjusted at the same time. 39. The application systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. Code review and application of available patches C. Develop in-house patches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER: D NOTE: Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them.Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the development of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costsC. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished responsiveness to requests for information ANSWER: A NOTE: End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independent outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applicati ons may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditional applications.End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to management's information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's IT project portfolio is the: A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER: C NOTE: One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organization's strategic objectives.Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a company's overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. Broad stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee participation D. Policy driven ANSWER: ANOTE: The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organization's business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the: A. plans and compare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests.C. emergency procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage an d environmental controls. ANSWER: B NOTE: Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. Reviewing emergency procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plan's overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate employees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contacts in the business continuity plan ANSWER: A NOTE: The business co ntinuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization.Training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed adequate for the organization. There is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity coverage C. Errors and omissions D. Extra expense ANSWER: B NOTE: Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization.Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST: A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. analyze the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach.ANSWER: C NOTE: Identification and ranking of information assets—e. g. , data criticality, locations of assets—will set the tone or scope of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats facing each of the organization's assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these weaknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47.An organization is using an enterpr ise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User-level permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER: B NOTE: Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the user's role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be configured or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a: A. certificate authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registration authority. ANSWER: C NOTE: A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message.A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. PasswordC. Photo identification D. Iris scan ANSWER: D NOTE: Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organization's data? A.Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER: B NOTE: When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a user's role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation.Having a user input the ID and passwo rd for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation?A. Process maturity B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER: C NOTE: Priority should be given to those areas which represent a known risk to the enterprise's operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to partic ipate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditor's MAIN concern should be that the: A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER: A NOTE: Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the usage of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. Software for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB por t D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facility's entrance ANSWER: B NOTE: Software for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage policy to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management.A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for new business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should next: A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model.C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER: D NOTE: If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS protocol? A.Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER: A NOTE: Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept data in transit, but when spyware is running on an end user's computer, data are collected before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56.At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER: B NOTE: A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects.An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should: A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER: C NOTE: Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. Though data compression may save disk space, it could affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when conducting a business continuity audit? A.Data backups are performed on a timely basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures a re in place D. Insurance coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER: C NOTE: The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work papers, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the: A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases.C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts payable system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary bec ause effective system access controls are in place.The BEST response the auditor can make is to: A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept management's statement that effective access controls are in place. C. stress the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER: C NOTE: Experience has demonstrated that reliance purely on preventative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time.Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and corrective controls to be established that don't have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective ac cess controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons outlined above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive.The IS auditor has a fundamental obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to unacceptable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. Testing and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative dutiesANSWER: B NOTE: A mistake in the rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log fil es would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of: A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated batch totals. ANSWER: C NOTE: Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an organization's management is to: A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations.C. align IT with business. D. implement best prac tices. ANSWER: A NOTE: Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations established within the change control system. ANSWER: C NOTE: The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back t o change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes.The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the: A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER: B NOTE: An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or completing the project before reviewing an updated business case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life o f any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C.Automated code comparison D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER: C NOTE: An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following d uring peak production hours could result in unexpected downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing preventive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. Replacing a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER: B NOTE: Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and preferably during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER: DNOTE: Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of defragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information; this method simply changes a file's indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is: A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime.ANSWER: D NOTE: The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact a nalysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the: A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider.C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER: C NOTE: The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relative risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. Defined C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER: B NOTE: Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the: A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error repor ts. D. program change requests. ANSWER: C NOTE: Testing is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in recognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures: A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production library. C. do not allow any emergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER: A NOTE: There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to resol ve system problems.This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied; otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should: A. include the statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usag e of the software. D. discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER: B NOTE: When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should obtain sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER: ANOTE: The primary reason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks pose d when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room; therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework.Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders' attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening routers D. Honeypots ANSWER: D NOTE: Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators.All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily to: A. prevent piggybacking.B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER: A NOTE: The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplish ed with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER: B NOTE: The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weaknesses but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. Default global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been purged D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER: B NOTE: Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern.Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should: A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate revocation of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER: B NOTE: It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls.The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis; therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copying of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl

The belief that humankind is going to

The belief that humankind is going to, inevitably, reach a dramatic decline is present among many young thinkers today, and even more so seen in the older generations. It is obvious that societies, globally, cant seem to reach out to the next generation. There are many problems present that we humans must face. Some of them are seen as more important than others, and it is all personal bias. I think that three of the most pressing problems are isolation or alienation via technology, the inequality of educational institutions and the systems in which we teach, and the moral decay of society, in general. While there might be, seemingly, simple solutions to these problems, we must look further into the problems we face in order to understand them better. It seems that the more technologically advanced we become the more isolated, or alienated, we become from ourselves, and society as a whole. I am not saying that we should "Take Vermont Back" but that we should be aware of social progress as it relates to how we communicate with each other. I am sure we all can relate to the phone messages that go on forever asking you to push button after button and never once speaking to a person! This sort of useless technology only serves to alienate humankind, as a whole, while saving corporate America the "added expense" of a personal greeting. Computers and all of the related wizardry that has exploded on to the scene in the late 20th century has benefited millions and can only be described as nothing short of miraculous to the needy, such as the disabled, but is used mostly by the young and bored who have further distanced themselves from society. "Supersized" shopping malls versus the village square. The Internet shopping craze versus! the touch and feel of humankind as one makes their way from person to person in their town. "Playstation 2" versus playing with your kids! We all do it and it becomes so easy to withdraw, be alone, beco...

Expressing Preferences with Would Rather

Expressing Preferences with Would Rather Both  would rather and would prefer  are  used to express preferences in English.  Here are some examples of short conversations that use would rather  and would prefer  to either state or ask for a preference. John: Lets go out tonight.Mary: Thats a good idea.John: How about going to a film? Theres a new film out with Tom Hanks.Mary: Id rather go out for dinner. Im hungry!John: Okay. Which restaurant would you prefer?Mary: Id prefer to eat at Johnnys. They serve great steaks. Sue: Im not sure which topic to choose for my essay.Debby: Well, what are your choices?Sue: I can write about the economy or about a book.Debby: Which would you rather write about?Sue: Id prefer to write about a book.Debby: How about Moby Dick?Sue: No, Id rather write about Timothys Gift. Would Rather - Structure Use  would rather  plus the simple form of the verb. Its common to use would rather in the shortened Id rather form in positive statements. Use  Would rather  to refer to the present moment or a future moment in time. Here are the structures: Positive Subject would rather (d rather) verb Peterd rather spend time on the beach.I would rather learn a new language than study math. Question Would subject rather verb   Would you rather stay at home?Would they rather do homework tomorrow morning? Negative Subject would rather (d rather)   not   verb   Shed rather not go to class today.Id rather not answer that question. Would Rather Than Would rather is often used with than  when making a choice between two specific actions: Would you rather eat dinner out than cook dinner tonight?She would rather play tennis than go horseback riding. Would Rather Or Would rather  can also be used to ask for a choice between two with the conjunction  or: Would you rather eat here or go out?Would you rather study or watch TV? Would Rather Someone Do Would rather is also used to express what one person prefers another person would do. The structure is similar to the unreal conditional because it expresses an imaginary wish. However, the form is also used to ask a polite question. S would rather Person past verb   Tom would rather Mary bought an SUV.Would you rather she stayed here with us? Positive Subject would rather (d rather) object past tense I would rather my son worked in finance.Susan would rather Peter took a plane. Question Would subject rather object past tense Would you rather her sister flew home tomorrow?Would you rather he came with us to the meeting? Would Prefer Its also possible to use  would prefer  instead of  would rather  to speak about present preferences.  In this case, follow prefer by the infinitive form of the verb: Positive Subject would prefer (d prefer) infinitive (to do) Jennifer would prefer to stay at home tonight.The teacherd prefer to have the test next week. Question Would subject prefer   infinitive (to do) Would you prefer to go out for dinner tonight?Would they prefer to stay in New York for the week? Expressing Preferences with Prefer Use the simple present with  prefer  to express general preferences between people, places or objects. Use the preposition  to  to state your preference: Positive Subject prefer   object to object She prefers coffee to tea.  I prefer summer vacations to winter vacations.   Question Do subject prefer   Ã‚  object to object Do you prefer wine to beer?Does she prefer New York to Chicago? When stating preferences for activities, use  prefer  followed by either the gerund or the infinitive form of the verb:   Positive Subject prefer  Ã‚  to do / doing object My friend prefers to finish his chores early in the morning.  Jack prefers doing his homework at home to doing it in the library. Question Do subject prefer   to do / doing object When do you prefer staying at home to going out at night?Does she prefer to eat in restaurants? Preferences Quiz I Fill in the gap with the correct form of the verb (do, to do, doing, did): Jenniferd rather _____ (stay) home for dinner tonight.I think Id prefer _______ (play) chess  today.Would you rather I _____ (leave) you alone?Id rather the students _____ (study) for their test.Peter prefers _____ (relax) at home on the weekend. Preferences Quiz II Fill in the gap with  to, than, or: Do you prefer coffee _____ tea?I think Id prefer _____ drive to California.  Would you rather go to the club _____ go to the beach? (asking for a choice)Hed rather work all day _____ go to the beach! (make a specific choice)My friend prefers Japanese food _____ American food. Quiz Answers Quiz I stayto play  leftstudyrelaxing / to relax Quiz II totoorthanto